The following reserve requirement ratios are prescribed for all United States banks. The numbers come from

http://www.fdic.gov/regulations/laws/rules/7500-500.html

§ 204.9 (e) of #7500204.2 >>, a federal law.

See:
http://www.howto-ville.com/Money%20Section/moneysupply.html

§ 204.9 Reserve requirement ratios (in text form)

The following reserve requirement ratios are prescribed for all depository institutions, banking Edge and agreement corporations, and United States branches and agencies of foreign banks:

For a net "Transaction Amount" (TA), the "Reserve Requirement" (RR) is in accordance with the following text.

For a TA of $0 to $9.3 million, the RR is 0% of TA
For a TA of $9.3 to $43.9 million, the RR is 3% of TA
For a TA over $43.9 million, the RR is $1,038,000 + 10% of amount over $43.9 million

It is interesting to note that there is no mention of "capital / asset ratio". Which, I am told by a knowledgeable authority, is what banker's pay attention to.

That is probably because the "capital/asset ratio" is a rule of an international banker's group (Bank for International Settlements). It is not a law of this country.

This seems to raise the question, "Who is running our banking system"? Is it our government's regulations or the rule of the international bankers?

THIS PARAGRAPH IS VERY IMPORTANT -- I LEARNED IN GRAMMAR SCHOOL THAT our Constitution says only the President of the United States -- with the advice and consent of Congress --can enter into a treaty with another country . Obviously an agreement with another country on how to run our banking system is a "treaty" -- thus, the Federal Reserve should not be allowed to make monetary agrements with another country. TO DO SO IS UNCONSTITUTIONAL.

What do you think?

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